OFFSET
1,2
COMMENTS
Does a(n) always equal 1 + pi(n) - pi(n/2), where pi(x) is number of primes <= x? If so a(n) = A056171(n)+1. - Leroy Quet, Feb 06 2003.
This is true, because A076221(n,k) = n-1 iff either k = 1 or k is a prime with n/2 < k <= n. - Robert Israel, Aug 29 2016
LINKS
Ethan Berkove and Michael Brilleslyper, Subgraphs of Coprime Graphs on Sets of Consecutive Integers, Integers (2022) Vol. 22, #A47, see p. 8.
MAPLE
seq(1+numtheory:-pi(n) - numtheory:-pi(floor(n/2)), n=1..100); # Robert Israel, Aug 29 2016
CROSSREFS
KEYWORD
nonn
AUTHOR
STATUS
approved