From: Max Alekseyev (maxale(AT)gmail.com) Sent: Wednesday, May 28, 2008 7:46 AM Subject: A139807 The conjecture is correct. Without "1+", which will stand for the zero value of the product, it can be formulated as follows: *Theorem 1*. The number of distinct *nonzero* values of Product_{q is a part of Q} (q-1), where Q ranges over all partitions of n, is equal to the number of partitions P of n into parts of the form p+1 where p=1, p=4, or p is a prime except p=11. First off, notice that every number of the form x*y+1 where x>1 and y>1 are integers, except x=y=2, can be represented in the form (x+1)+(y+1)+(1+1)*k where k is a non-negative integer. Therefore, every part of Q of the form x*y+1 where x>1, y>1, except x=y=2, can be sub-partitioned into the parts x+1, y+1, and k parts equal 1+1=2 such that the product Product_{q is a part of Q} (q-1) remains the same. Therefore, Theorem 1 is equivalent to: *Theorem 2*. The number of distinct values of Product_{q+1 is a part of Q} q, where Q ranges over all partitions of n into parts of the form q+1 where q is a prime, q=1, or q=4, is equal to the number of partitions P of n into parts of the form p+1 where p=1, p=4, or p is a prime except p=11. The proof of Theorem 2 is split into two Lemmas: Lemma 3. The number of distinct values of Product_{q+1 is a part of Q} q, where Q ranges over all partitions of n into parts of the form q+1 where q is a prime, q=1, or q=4, is equal to the number of partitions Q' of n into the same parts that do not contain a sub-partition {5,5,2}. Proof of Lemma 3. Note that each sub-partition {5,5,2} in Q can be replaced with {3,3,3,3} so that the resulting partition will remain a partition of n with the same value of Product_{q+1 is a part of Q} q. After a finite number of such replacements we get a partition Q' without sub-partitions {5,5,2}. To finish the proof it is enough to notice that no two different partitions of Q'-type (i.e., without sub-partitions {5,5,2}) can have the same value of Product_{q+1 is a part of Q} q. QED Lemma 4. The number of partitions Q' of n into parts of the form q+1 where q is a prime, q=1, or q=4, without sub-partition {5,5,2} is equal to the number of partitions P of n into parts of the form p+1 where p=1, p=4, or p is a prime except p=11. Proof of Lemma 4. There is one-to-one correspondence between the partitions of Q'-type and P-type: to get P from Q' one needs to replace of each sub-partition {12} with {5,5,2}; to get Q' from P one needs to replace of each sub-partition {5,5,2} with {12}. QED Regards, Max